Modules 1—6 Review

（满分150分;时间120分钟）

第一部分  听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the woman want to do？

A. Buy a skirt. B. Change a skirt. C. See her daughter.

2. When should the man hand in his homework？

A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Monday.

3. Where does the conversation probably take place？

A. In a factory. B. In a library. C. In a classroom.

4. What will the woman probably do later？

A. See a doctor. B. Visit her friend. C. Give the man some advice.

5. When will the man probably come home？

A. At 4：30. B. At 6：00. C. At 6：30.

第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。

6. What are the speakers mainly talking about？

A. Working hours in the US. B. Working experience in the US. C. Payment in the US.

7. Who may get overtime pay？

A. High officers. B. High officials. C. Ordinary workers.

听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。

8. Why did the speakers get lost？

A. They drove too fast. B. They took the wrong turn.

C. They were in the opposite direction.

9. What happened in the street？

A. A driver almost hit a kid. B. They hit a bicycle. C. A boy caused an accident.

聽第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. What did the man think of the film he saw last night？

A. Terrible. B. Wonderful. C. Boring.

11. Why did the woman miss the film？

A. She saw another film. B. She went shopping. C. She visited her friend.

12. What kind of films does the woman like？

A. Historical films. B. Horror films. C. Scientific films.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. Why do the speakers seldom see their parents？

A. They dont want to trouble their parents.

B. Their parents dont have a big house.

C. They live far from their parents.

14. What is the weather like now in the place where the speakers live？

A. Warm. B. Cold. C. Rainy.

15. When will the speakers probably go to see their parents？

A. This spring. B. This summer. C. Right now.

16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers？

A. Husband and wife. B. Mother and son. C.  Sister and brother.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. How long had the speaker been playing the piano before she met Michael？

A. For 5 years. B. For 4 years. C. For 3 years.

18. What does the speaker think of the piano teacher？

A. Serious. B. Interesting. C. Friendly.

19. What did the teacher want the speaker to learn to do？

A. Play notes on a piano. B. Express herself. C. Write a song.

20. What can we learn about the speaker？

A. She is thankful for Michael. B. She was tired of playing the piano.

C. She stopped singing forever.

第二部分  阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

Winter Break Camps are a great way to have fun during the school break. Offerings include art， sports， science and more.

The Culinary Dude Winter Break Camps， San Francisco & Tiburon

Our hands-on cooking camps will enable kids to find their inner chef. The Culinary Dude has created a wonderful collection of daily menus that allow the kids to cook and eat their own lunch. Winter Break Camp， Jan 2—5， 2023 in Tiburon. Winter Break Camp in San Francisco， Dec 26—28， 2022. Call 415-242-4192.

Art Camps at Art School of San Francisco Bay， San Francisco

This winter we offer our all-time favorites： Fan Art， Digital （数码的） Painting and Around the World art camps. While drawing their favorite characters from movies， books and cartoons students learn important artistic skills and create outstanding works of art. Dec 18—22 & Dec 26—29， 2022; Jan 2—5， 2023. Call 415-363-8858.

Trackers Earth， Berkeley

Spend winter break with Trackers Dec 18—22 and Dec 27—29， 2022. Our camps get into the true meaning of the holidays. Campers aged 4—14 learn fun wilderness， take part in role-playing games， and make waffles （華夫饼）. We are located near Ashby BART for drop-off and pick-up， while your children spend their days outside in nature. Call 562-848-9923.

GrowFit Sports Camp， Redwood City & San Jose

To keep your kids active and energized during Dec 19—24 and Dec 28—30， 2022， GrowFit Camp provides a safe place for children to learn and play. Our camp includes many sports and group games and teaches the values of teamwork and sportsmanship. Space is limited. Call 650-394-6176.

21. Which camp may a painting lover attend？

A. Art Camps at Art School of San Francisco Bay. B. The Culinary Dude Winter Break Camps.

C. GrowFit Sports Camp. D. Trackers Earth.

22. How is Trackers Earth different from the other three camps？

A. It teaches kids how to cook. B. It improves kids artistic skills.

C. It opens to a certain age group. D. It includes many sports activities.

23. When is GrowFit Sports Camp open to kids？

A. Jan 2， 2023. B. Jan 5， 2023. C. Dec 26， 2022. D. Dec 28， 2022.

B

Trekking （跋涉） 500 miles across Spain is no easy task for anyone， but for wheelchair user Justin Skeesuck， achieving the dream seemed nearly impossible. However， Skeesucks lifelong best friend， Patrick Gray， simply didnt accept that idea. He said， “Weve done everything together so far. Why dont we have one more adventure？”

Thats exactly what he did—pushing Skeesuck across northern Spains Camino de Santiago. Though Skeesuck has a muscle disease similar to ALS （肌萎縮侧索硬化） and high blood pressure， he first got the idea to go on the journey after he watched a travel show about the trail. He said， “I knew immediately since my heart was just telling me， ‘You need to do this.

Finally， the two best friends from Idaho set off to make Skeesucks dream of going for the journey a reality. However， neither Gray nor Skeesuck realized how physically and emotionally arduous the trip would be. Not only did they have a strict time limit—about six weeks to get from start to finish， but they also faced extremely difficult obstacles （障碍）. The pair crossed mountains， rivers and a desert. “Ive never been that exhausted physically in my entire life，” Gray said. The pair came across countless kind people during their trip who were eager to help them finish their journey， but they refused their help with gentle words. 34 days later， the two best friends finished their journey.

Gray recorded their incredible trip in a book—appropriately titled Ill Push You： A Journey of 500 Miles， Two Best Friends and One Wheelchair， which would be published soon. Skeesuck and Gray are also working on a childrens book that will tell the story of their adventure. They hope that the book will give kids strength when they deal with difficulties.

24. What can we learn about Patrick Gray from Paragraph 1？

A. He is a wheelchair user.

B. He had been to Spain several times before.

C. He didnt think trekking 500 miles was an adventure.

D. He wanted to challenge what was thought impossible.

25. What does the underlined word “arduous” in Paragraph 3 probably mean？

A. Disappointing. B. Challenging. C. Satisfying. D. Relaxing.

26. What can we infer about the pairs journey from Paragraph 3？

A. They set off on foot. B. They finished it ahead of time.

C. They accepted a lot of help from kind people. D. They met with much difficulty as theyd expected.

27. Why did the two friends write a childrens book on that journey？

A. To earn money. B. To persuade kids to visit Spain.

C. To encourage kids to face difficulty. D. To show kids the natural scenery of Spain.

C

A British friend told me he couldnt understand why Chinese people love eating sunflower seeds （葵花子） as a snack so much. “Ive met a lot of older Chinese and many have a crack （裂縫） in their front teeth; I believe thats from cracking the seeds，” he said.

I had never noticed the habit， but once he mentioned it， I suddenly became more aware. I realized that whenever Im watching TV or typing a report， I always start mindlessly cracking sunflower seeds. My friend doesnt like sunflower seeds， and， to him， it seems unnecessary to work so hard just to get one small seed.

When we were young， the whole family would usually get together for Chinese New Year. Then， we all lived close to one another， usually in a small city， and sometimes even neighbors would go door-to-door on Chinese New Years Eve to check out what every household was making.

I remember my parents would be in the kitchen cooking. In the living room， a large table would already be laid out， complete with a fancy tablecloth， ready-made dumpling fillings， and dishes full of candy， fruits and sunflower seeds.

Some of the dishes were to be offered to our ancestors later， while others were for neighbors and children to eat before the evening feast. I must have learned how to crack sunflower seeds back then.

I dont think its right to criticize ones choice in food or eating habits， no matter how strange they may seem. Its not only in China. When I went abroad， I found people had all kinds of strange habits when it came to food. In Denmark， they put salted red fish on bread and eat it for dinner， no matter how much it ruins their breath. They think its a delicacy （佳肴）， and its connected with their culture. I think its a wonderful tradition.

28. What did the author become aware of？

A. She likes to eat sunflower seeds. B. She had ever typed a report about seeds.

C. She ate various snacks while watching TV. D. She damaged her teeth by eating sunflower seeds.

29. The author talks about Chinese New Year to say ___ .

A. eating sunflower seeds is related to it B. family would get together for it

C. the traditions of celebrating it are disappearing D. children can eat delicious food during it

30. What does the author think of Denmarks way of eating bread？

A. Doubtful. B. Surprising. C. Special. D. Acceptable.

31. What does the author mainly want to tell us？

A. It is good to form healthy eating habits.

B. Eating habits come from a certain culture.

C. Changing your eating habits will change your life.

D. One kind of food doesnt necessarily suit everyone.

D

Nowadays technologies benefit us a lot in our daily life， but if not properly used， they can affect our health. The bed is supposed to be reserved as a place for sleep， but people tend to read an iPad a lot in bed before they go to sleep.

Charles Czeisler， a professor at Harvard Medical School， and his colleagues got a small group of people for an experiment. For five days in a row， the people read either a paper book or an iPad for four hours before sleep. Their sleep patterns were monitored all night. Before and after each trial period， the people took hourly blood test to paint a day-long picture of just how much melatonin （褪黑激素） was in their blood at any given time.

When subjects read on the iPad as compared to the paper books， they reported feeling less sleepy at night and less active the following morning. People also took longer to fall asleep on the iPad nights， and the blood tests showed that their melatonin secretion （分泌） was delayed by an hour and a half.

The researchers conclude in todays journal article that given the rise of e-readers and the increasingly widespread use of e-things among children and adolescents， more research into the long-term consequences of these devices （設备） on health and safety is urgently needed. Czeisler and colleagues go on， in the research paper， to note “Reading an iPad in bed may increase cancer risk”.

However， software has been developed that can reduce some of the blue light from the screens of phones and computers according to time of day， and there are also glasses that are made to filter （过滤） short wavelengths. While they seem like a logical solution for the nighttime tech users， it needs more research.

32. In Charles Czeislers experiment， what were all the subjects asked to do？

A. Sit in a row and receive the strict tests.

B. Have their sleep patterns observed all night.

C. Read a paper book and an iPad at the same time.

D. Have their blood tested per hour during the trial.

33. What were the iPad readers likely to do according to Paragraph 3？

A. Become less energetic the next morning. B. Fall asleep more easily after reading.

C. Have a lot more melatonin secretions. D. Feel less sleepy and tired in the day.

34. What can the special software recently developed do for e-readers？

A. Help them with all the e-things widely and safely.

B. Remove the blue light from their devices completely.

C. Weaken the harm done by doing nighttime e-reading.

D. Help prevent eyes being harmed by short wavelengths.

35. What can be the best title for the text？

A. No Games on the iPad in Bed B. New Software for Night E-readers

C. Wrong Behaviors before Bedtime D. No E-reading in Bed before Sleep

第二節（共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Today anyone will accept money in exchange for goods and services. People use money to buy food， furniture， books， bicycles and hundreds of other things they need or want. 36

Most of the money today is made of metal or paper. 37 One of the first kinds of money was shells.

Shells were not the only things used as money. In China， cloth and knives were used. In the Philippine Islands， rice was used as money for a long time. Elephant tusks （象牙）， monkey tails and salt were used as money in parts of Africa.

The first metal coins were made in China. They were round and had a square hole in the center. 38

Different countries have used different metals and designs for their money. 39 Sweden and Russia used copper to make their money. Later some countries began to make coins of gold and silver.

But even gold and silver were inconvenient if you had to buy something expensive. Again the Chinese thought of a way to improve money. 40 The first paper money looked more like a note from one person to another than the paper money used today.

Money has had an interesting history from the days of shell money until today.

A. They began to use paper money.

B. The first coins in England were made of tin.

C. Money， as we know， is usually made of paper.

D. When they work， they usually get paid in money.

E. But people used to use all kinds of things as money.

F. No one knows for certain when people began to use money.

G. People strung them together and carried them from place to place.

36. ______  37. ______  38. ______  39. ______  40. ______

第三部分  英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节  完形填空（共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

I was late， as usual. A friend of mine had invited me to a conference， and I had been in the parking lot for a good fifteen minutes. My mind was 41. Was my husband able to find the 42 I laid out for the kids？ Did the kids eat breakfast？ More importantly， would he have enough 43 to look for a parking spot in this jungle of cars in order to meet me here with the 44 later on？

As I was 45 through the plan in my mind， I saw a parking space. Since there was not much 46， I decided to back up my giant truck between the two white lines so that leaving would be 47 after the conference ended.

As I adjusted the 48 of my truck and started reversing （倒車）， another car came out of nowhere and 49 to take my parking spot. I signaled to the 50 that I was about to back up into the space， but she squeezed （挤过） by me and 51 her SUV in my spot！ I couldnt believe how rude she was！ It made me so 52 that I got out of my car and stared at the lady. By the way she was dressed， I could 53 she was on her way to the conference.

I 54 at her， “That was not very kind behavior！”

Much to my 55， she completely took no notice of me， and I stormed off.

After a few minutes， I found another parking 56... behind a smelly dustbin and about a mile away from the conference. Once I 57 myself down and tried to view the matter from a（n） 58 angle， the possibility 59 my mind that the woman may have needed the spot more than I did.

Later， I noticed she was actually one of the vendors （销售商） at the conference. She must have been desperate （极度渴望的） to get there 60 in order to set up her small tent and display her goods.

41. A. suffering B. struggling C. racing D. beating

42. A. passports B. clothes C. jewels D. cars

43. A. mind B. principle C. humor D. patience

44. A. workers B. kids C. managers D. headmasters

45. A. going B. pulling C. breaking D. getting

46. A. wonder B. energy C. room D. material

47. A. easier B. happier C. slower D. lower

48. A. back B. height C. weight D. direction

49. A. attempted B. managed C. afforded D. pretended

50. A. assistant B. driver C. passenger D. actor

51. A. watched B. checked C. parked D. pushed

52. A. sad B. touched C. nervous D. angry

53. A. feel B. tell C. hear D. speak

54. A. aimed B. fired C. laughed D. shouted

55. A. relief B. joy C. surprise D. interest

56. A. space B. garden C. road D. street

57. A. turned B. calmed C. cut D. brought

58. A. necessary B. proper C. attractive D. different

59. A. reflected B. helped C. entered D. forced

60. A. quickly B. correctly C. repeatedly D. seriously

第二节（共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Dogs were first raised at home at least 150 centuries ago. Since then， the dog 61 （be） humans best friend. Now， they have another job—to assist doctors to diagnose cancer.

After a long-standing research of smell， a Finnish professor has said that certain 62 （type） of cancer are able to be detected by their smell， making it possible to train cancer-sniffing （癌癥嗅探能力） dogs 63 （help） diagnose the disease.

A professor， Jouko Vepsalainen from the University of Eastern Finland in Kuopio， has focused 64 nitrogen compounds （氮化合物）. The compounds increase 65 （great） when cancer cells grow in an uncontrollable way， 66 （allow） them to be detected， the Finnish newspaper Karjalainen reported. Thats where the dog， mans best friend， may step in with their keen （灵敏的） sense of smell.

According to the news agency， researchers in Finland have tried to train dogs to do the job， but 67

will take a dog months， even years， to tell the 68 （different） between sick and healthy people. “Anyone

69 knows how difficult early cancer detection is 70 （understand） what an opportunity this is，” associate professor Anna Hielm-Bjorkman of the University of Helsinki told the Finnish media.

61.                            62.                            63.                            64.                            65.

66.                            67.                            68.                            69.                            70.

第四部分  写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节  短文改錯（共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

Parks are places that you can relax. You can see a lot of plants， which are such beautiful. Parks are usually crowded because they are good places to go to， and parks scenery was very beautiful. You can see a lot of old people in parks because they love fresher air. Old people like fresh air and that is how you can see a lot of us in parks. However， parks are not only for old people and also for young people. They are good places to go to if you want to relax， and you can also have a picnic there. You will surely have good time. I like to go to parks because they make me to feel very comfortable and relaxing.

第二节  书面表达（满分25分）

假如你是李华，为开阔视野、体验英国文化，你将参加“英国文化之旅”活动。请给你的英国笔友Mike写一封电子邮件告知此事，同时，因你第一次去英国，请他就社交礼仪等方面给你一些建议。内容包括：

1.告知你的安排;

2.阐述你的担忧;

3.写邮件的目的。

注意：

1.词数100左右;

2.邮件的开头语和结束语已为你写好，不计入总词数。

参考词汇：英国文化之旅 the Culture Trip to the UK

Dear Mike，

How is it going recently？

Yours truly，

Li Hua