满分150分;时间120分钟。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the woman’s mobile phone?
A. In the bedroom. B. In the living room." " " " " C. In the kitchen.
2. What is the weather probably like now?
A. Rainy." " " " " " " " B. Windy." " " " " " " " " " C. Sunny.
3. What will the woman do on Sunday?
A. Meet a friend. B. Attend a wedding. C. Visit an exhibition.
4. When can the woman get the computer?
A. On Tuesday." " " " " " B. On Wednesday." " " " " " " C. On Thursday.
5. What gift will the woman probably get for Emma?
A. A guitar. B. A music record. C. A movie ticket.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题。每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. How will the woman go to Camden Town?
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By subway.
7. When will the speakers meet tomorrow?
A. At 9:30. B. At 10:30. C. At 11:30.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. Where is the woman going on Saturday?
A. To garden Hotel." " " " " B. To the airport." " " C. To the taxi company.
9. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Booking the flight." " " B. Asking the way." " C. Booking a taxi.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What did the woman think of the exam?
A. Easy. B. Challenging. C. Extraordinary.
11. On what did the woman spend a lot of time this term?
A. Enjoying her life." " " B. Preparing for the exam." " " C. Doing part-time jobs.
12. What is the man probably?
A. A writer." B. A student." " " " " " C. A librarian.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Workmates. B. Classmates. C. Employer and employee.
14. Why is the man flying to Rome?
A. To meet a designer." " " " B. To sell books and CDs." " C. To start a new company.
15. What will the man do on Sunday?
A. Go to the seaside." " " " " B. Have a good rest." " " " " C. Take a plane.
16. How does the woman probably feel about the man’s weekend plans?
A. Interested. B. Worried. C. Angry.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. From whom did the speaker hear about the project?
A. Her cousin." " B. Her friend." " C. Her neighbor.
18. Where does the speaker come from?
A. Thailand. B. China. C. Australia.
19. What does the speaker ask her family to do?
A. Learn to recycle." " B. Take part in the project." " C. Care about sea animals.
20. What will the project focus on next year?
A. The west coast." " B. The rivers." " C. The seaside.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Bus Tours in Washington DC
The Lights Night Tour
Duration: 3 hours $56.33
Highestrated Night Tour in DC! The ONLY DC Night Tour where the Tour Guides HOP OFF with you at each stop and tell you about each monument and attraction. Hop aboard The Lights Night Tour! The best time to take a tour of Washington DC is at night.
Best Mount Vernon Tour
Duration: 6 hours $78.96
See George Washington’s Mount Vernon Estate on this small group bus tour from Washington DC. Your tour guide will accompany you through Mount Vernon, telling you about all of the attractions there and the history of George Washington’s home on the Potomac River.
The Best Minibus Tour
Duration: 3 hours $46.92
See all the key attractions DC has to offer in a 3-hour format. You will learn all about the history and trivia that surrounds Washington and visit the major monuments and attractions DC has to offer.
Please Note: Rates (费用) for this tour vary by day of the week. When you choose your specific date on the availability calendar, the rates for that date will be displayed.
The Blossoms (花朵) Tour
Duration: 3 hours $56.99
BEST WAY to Experience the Cherry Blossoms! Each year from mid March to mid April, see the beautiful Cherry Blossoms in Washington DC and get great photos because you’ll be led to all the best spots by the best guides. The annual spring bloom in DC is a magical time and this tour promises to provide the very best tour opportunity for you!
21. Which tour would provide you with a boat tour?
A. The Lights Night Tour." " " " " " " " " B. Best Mount Vernon Tour.
C. The Best Minibus Tour." " " " " " " " " D. The Blossoms Tour.
22. What is special about The Best Minibus Tour?
A. Its price is not fixed." " " " " " " " " B. Its tour time is the longest.
C. It has the best tour guides." " " " D. It provides activities at night.
23. Which date suits The Blossoms Tour most?
A. July 4." " " " " B. April 20." " " " C. March 27." " " " " D. February 15.
B
The garden city was largely the invention of Ebenezer Howard (1850—1928). After immigrating (移民) from England to the USA, and an unsuccessful attempt to make a living as a farmer, he moved to Chicago, where he saw the reconstruction of the city after the disastrous fire of 1871. In those days, it was nicknamed “the Garden City”, almost certainly the source of Howard’s name for his later building plan of towns. Returning to London, Howard developed his design in the 1880s and 1890s, drawing on ideas that were popular at the time, but creating a unique combination of designs.
The nineteenth-century poor city was in many ways a terrible place, dirty and crowded; but it offered economic and social opportunities. At the same time, the British countryside was in fact equally unattractive: though it promised fresh air and nature, it suffered from agricultural depression (萧条) and it offered neither enough work and wages (工资), nor much social life. Howard’s idea was to combine the best of town and country in a new kind of settlement, the garden city. Howard’s idea was that a group of people should set up a company, borrowing money to establish a garden city in the depressed countryside; far enough from existing cities to make sure that the land was bought at the bottom price.
Garden cities would provide a central public open space, radial avenues and connecting industries. They would be surrounded by a much larger area of green belt, also owned by the company, containing not merely farms but also some industrial institutions. As more and more people moved in, the garden city would reach its planned limit. Howard suggested 32,000 people; then, another would be started a short distance away. Thus, over time, there would be a vast planned house collection, extending almost without limit; within it, each garden city would offer a wide range of jobs and services, but each would also be connected to the others by a rapid transportation system, thus giving all the economic and social opportunities of a big city.
24. When did Howard start his plan?
A. In the 1850s. B. In the 1870s. C. In the 1880s. D. In the 1990s.
25. What can we know about garden cities from the last paragraph?
A. The number would be increasing. B. Their population would be small.
C. They are far from each other." " D. They offer the same jobs as other big cities.
26. What is Howard’s idea?
A. Creating a different design in Chicago. B. Buying a land at the lowest price.
C. Setting up some companies in the cities. D. Building a garden city in the countryside.
27. What can be the best title for the text?
A. The Reconstruction of the Countryside B. The Invention of the Garden City
C. A New City in Chicago D. A Famous Garden City in England
C
These days, it seems like everyone wants to go out into space and live on new planets. Rather than depend on another pre-existing planet, could we make a new, proper planet ourselves?
To start with, if we’d want to be living on it, we should find a good place in space to put the new planet. We’d want it to be in a habitable zone, meaning the planet should be at the right distance from its star to make sure there would be perfect temperatures and most importantly, liquid water.
We’d also need the right materials to make the planet. Our earth is made up of many different elements. If we made our own new planet, we’d probably want it to have similar elements and a similar structure. We’d also want enough water to form some oceans.
But even if we get all of the materials, creating a new planet like the Earth could have many troubles. It might be something more like a huge space station. It would be pretty expensive if we wanted it to be super big.
We would probably also need a lot of food, since there’s going to be many scientists and astronauts out in space working on this project!
According to National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), each astronaut uses about 0.83 kilograms of food per meal, including 0.12 kilograms of packaging material. Without the weight of the packaging material, we’d need about 780 kilograms of food just to feed one astronaut for a year.
Putting all these together could make it possible to make our own planet one day! In reality, creating a new planet would probably require a very modern technology and there would be tons of other things to think about. And if this is even possible, it likely won’t happen for a very long time.
28. What is the first thing we should do to create a new planet?
A. To prepare enough food. B. To design its inner structure.
C. To find a proper place to set it. D. To collect materials similar to our earth.
29. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Our earth. B. Outer space. C. The new planet. D. The ocean water.
30. How much food does an astronaut actually eat each meal?
A. About 0.12 kg. B. About 0.71 kg. C. About 0.83 kg. D. About 0.95 kg.
31. What does the author think of creating a planet?
A. It is a waste of money and time. B. It won’t come true in the near future.
C. It is not a good idea for humans. D. It should be one of NASA’s next plans.
D
Color can affect moods, emotions and even actions. This includes sleep and health.
The color blue has been thought to stimulate a sleep state. Exposure to blue light can help lower body temperature and blood pressure. A decrease in blood pressure and body temperature is the preparation that signals to the body that it’s time to sleep. Therefore, seeing the color blue when you are ready to rest may cause the response and help you fall asleep more easily.
While there is much evidence that blue is the best choice for your bedroom walls, it’s really the tone (色调) that influences your sleep, not the color itself. Deep blue or other neutral (素净的) tones will even make a small bedroom seem more spacious.
While soft colors and earth tones are the most calming and restful bedroom colors for sleep, which prevent your brain activity, bright colors stimulate brain activity and stop you from falling asleep.
What you should remember is that never paint your bedroom walls purple! Purple stimulates creative thought and can lead to extremely vivid nightmares. Other bad choices for bedroom colors include bright reds and bright oranges. These colors stimulate the brain and increase energy. For example, red causes passion, increases energy and may even help you move more quickly. It may be a better choice for your home gym than for your sleep space.
Regardless of the size of your room, there are a few tones that we suggest for creating a healthy space for deep sleep. The most important factor is that you feel calm and restful in the room. You should also keep your bedroom free from mess as much as possible and keep it clean. In your bedroom, sleep should be your main focus.
32. What is the effect the color blue has on people?
A. It can cause high blood pressure." " " " " B. It can keep the brain active.
C. It can adjust the sleep state." " " " " " " D. It can cool the body down.
33. What color can help make the room look larger?
A. Light gray." " " " B. Deep pink." " " " C. Deep red." " " " " D. Orange.
34. What is Paragraph 5 mainly about?
A. Ways to make sure of good sleep." " " " " " B. Wrong colors for the bedroom.
C. Colors and brain activities." " " " " " " " " D. The advice on health.
35. What plays a key role in sleep?
A. The room is decorated well." " " " " " " " B. The room is free from rubbish.
C. The room makes you feel relaxed." " " " " " D. The room shows different tones.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everyone wants to be happy. You see people who are smiling and laughing, and you want to be like them. 36 However, there are also bad days. Here are three ways to make you happier every day.
Smile often. Research has shown that the facial expression you wear influences your state of mind.
37 Wearing a pleasant expression for a long period of time will slowly improve your feelings and help you have a happier day.
38 The more you complain, the more annoyed you become. If all you notice or talk about during the day are the things that annoy you, it is no surprise that you are unhappy. To truly increase your long-term happiness, don’t complain any longer. 39
Practice thankfulness. Thankfulness has been shown to be the last ticket to a happy life. The more you practice thankfulness, the more you will find things to be grateful for in your life. 40 Even something as simple as a safe place to sleep or food to eat is worth being thankful for because not everyone is fortunate enough to have those necessities.
A. Stop complaining.
B. Try your best to keep healthy.
C. If you try to smile, you are more likely to be happy.
D. There are good days filled with sunshine and smiles.
E. This then leads you to realize how much goodness is in your life.
F. You should slowly stop paying much attention to what worries you.
G. Have an entire day without complaining even once and see how you feel.
36." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 37." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 38." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 39." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 40.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
What if an animal’s main food source is very scarce in the winter? The 41 may be hibernation
(冬眠), that is, a deep sleep which allows them to 42 the winter with little or no food.
Ways of hibernation 43 widely. Some animals store food in their burrows to eat when they awake for short periods. Many 44 extra food in the fall while it is plentiful, which is 45 as body fat to be used later for energy.
Hibernators have two kinds of 46 : regular white fat and special brown fat. The brown fat 47 near the animal’s brain, heart and lungs. Its main 48 is to provide extra body heat. It also sends a quick burst of 49 to warm these organs (器官) first when it’s time to wake up.
True hibernators go into such a deep sleep that they are difficult to 50 and may appear dead. Their" 51 goes down. Their breathing and heart beat slow significantly. 52 hibernating woodchuck’s heart rate 53 down from 80 to 4 beats per minute, and its temperature 54 from 37°C to as low as 4°C. Other hibernating animals don’t experience major 55 in temperature, heart rate or breathing. They are usually the 56 sleepers, easily awakened. They may sleep during the 57 weather and wake to wander and eat during milder weather.
If an animal lives in an area where the winter is mild, it may hibernate only 58 or not at all. However, even when the 59 is severe, the animals may wake up for short periods every few weeks to use their “toilet rooms” and eat if food is 60 then.
41. A. solution" " " " " " B. explanation" " " " " " C. preparation" " " " " D. imagination
42. A. enter B. experience C. escape" " " " " " " D. survive
43. A. happen B. vary" " " " " " " " C. exist" " " " " " " " D. spread
44. A. produce" " " " " " B. waste" " " " " " " " C. eat" " " " " " " " " D. plant
45. A. hidden" " " " " " B. stored" " " " " " " " C. closed" " " " " " " D. discovered
46. A. blood" " " " " " " B. taste" " " " nbsp; " " " C. skin" " " " " " " " D. fat
47. A. forms" " " " " " B. improves C. declines" " " " " " " D. disappears
48. A. truth" " " " " " " B. choice" " " " " " " C. function" " " " " " " D. possibility
49. A. light" " " " " " " B. energy" " " " " " " C. activity" " " " " " " D. emotion
50. A. wake up" " " " " B. keep on C. stay slim" " " " " " " D. fall asleep
51. A. heat" " " " " " B. pressure" " " " " " C. movement" " " " " " D. temperature
52. A. For example" " " B. For sure" " " " " " C. In short" " " " " " " D. In fact
53. A. breaks B. turns C. slows D. goes
54. A. cools B. differs C. drops" " " " " " " " D. starts
55. A. benefits" " " " " B. changes" " " " " " C. challenges" " " " " " D. accidents
56. A. dangerous" " " " B. peaceful" " " " " " C. heavy" " " " " " " " D. light
57. A. nicest" " " " " " B. mildest" " " " " " " C. warmest" " " " " " " D. severest
58. A. briefly" " " " " " B. suddenly" " " " " " " C. normally" " " " " " D. permanently
59. A. stress" " " " " " B. warning" " " " " " C. weather" " " " " " " D. problem
60. A. affordable" " " " B. available" " " " " " C. necessary" " " " " " " D. limited
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mount Qomolangma is the 61 (high) mountain in the world. The mountain 62 (be) located in Asia. Asia is home 63 all five of the world’s highest mountains. Mount Qomolangma’s peak is five and one-half miles above sea level. That is very high.
Many climbers have tried to climb to the top of Mount Qomolangma’s peak. The first people to reach the peak were Sir Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay. Since then, about hundreds of people 64 (survive) the climb to Mount Qomolangma’s top.
One of the 65 (succeed) climbers is Erik Weihenmayer. Like all 66 try to climb this high mountain, Eric faced strong winds, snow and avalanches (雪崩). 67 , what really made Erik’s climb 68 (surprise) is the fact that he is blind. After 69 (lose) his vision at age 13, Erik began climbing at age 16. He has climbed the tallest mountains on five continents. Erik became the first blind person 70 " (reach) the peak of Mount Qomolangma.
61." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 62." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 63." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 64." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 65.
66." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 67." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 68." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 69." " " " " " " " " " " " " " 70.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(﹨)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Our school is like beautiful garden. We students are like flowers planting in it and our teachers are like gardeners, that take good care of us and water us with love and knowledge. In my opinion, it’s their duty to do something for our school. First, we should protect the school environment so we shouldn’t drop litter careless. And we can plant more tree. Next, we shouldn’t waste water, food, electricity or so on. Besides, we should remember to turn on the taps. Last, it is necessary to get on well with others. When someone was in trouble, we had better to give him a hand.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是学生会主席李华,你校将举办秋季运动会。请你根据提示,用英语写一则通知,号召同学们积极参加运动会。内容包括:
1﹒时间和地点;
2﹒运动项目及报名事项;
3﹒希望积极参加。
注意:
1﹒词数100左右;
2﹒可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。