Modules 1—6 Review

（满分150分;时间120分钟）

第一部分  听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the woman want to do？

A. Buy a skirt. B. Change a skirt. C. See her daughter.

2. When should the man hand in his homework？

A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Monday.

3. Where does the conversation probably take place？

A. In a factory. B. In a library. C. In a classroom.

4. What will the woman probably do later？

A. See a doctor. B. Visit her friend. C. Give the man some advice.

5. When will the man probably come home？

A. At 4：30. B. At 6：00. C. At 6：30.

第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。

6. What are the speakers mainly talking about？

A. Working hours in the US. B. Working experience in the US. C. Payment in the US.

7. Who may get overtime pay？

A. High officers. B. High officials. C. Ordinary workers.

听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。

8. Why did the speakers get lost？

A. They drove too fast. B. They took the wrong turn. C. They were in the opposite direction.

9. What happened in the street？

A. A driver almost hit a kid. B. They hit a bicycle. C. A boy caused an accident.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. What did the man think of the film he saw last night？

A. Terrible. B. Wonderful. C. Boring.

11. Why did the woman miss the movie？

A. She saw another film. B. She went shopping. C. She visited her friend.

12. What kind of films does the woman like？

A. Historical films. B. Horror films. C. Scientific films.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. Why do the speakers seldom see their parents？

A. Their parents don’t have a big house. B. They don’t want to trouble their parents.

C. They live far from their parents.

14. What’s the weather like now in the place where the speakers live？

A. Warm. B. Cold. C. Rainy.

15. When will the speakers probably go to see their parents？

A. This spring. B. This summer. C. Right now.

16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers？

A. Husband and wife. B. Mother and son. C.  Sister and brother.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20題。

17. How long had the speaker been playing the piano before she met Michael？

A. 5 years. B. 4 years. C. 3 years.

18. What does the speaker think of the piano teacher？

A. Serious. B. Interesting. C. Friendly.

19. What did the teacher want the speaker to learn to do？

A. Play notes on a piano. B. Express herself. C. Write a song.

20. What can we learn about the speaker？

A. She’s thankful for Michael. B. She was tired of playing the piano. C. She stopped singing forever.

第二部分  閱读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

Winter Break Camps are a great way to have fun during the school break. Offerings include art， sports， science and more.

The Culinary Dude Winter Break Camps， San Francisco & Tiburon

Our hands-on cooking camps will enable kids to find their inner chef. The Culinary Dude has created a wonderful collection of daily menus that allow the kids to cook and eat their own lunch. Winter Break Camp， Jan 2—5， 2022 in Tiburon. Winter Break Camp in San Francisco， Dec 26—28， 2021. Call 415-242-4192.

Art Camps at Art School of San Francisco Bay， San Francisco

This winter we offer our all-time favorites： Fan Art， Digital （数码的） Painting and Around the World art camps. While drawing their favorite characters from movies， books and cartoons students learn important artistic skills and create outstanding works of art. Dec 18—22 & Dec 26—29， 2021; Jan 2—5， 2022. Call 415-363-8858.

Trackers Earth， Berkeley

Spend winter break with Trackers Dec 18—22 and Dec 27—29， 2021. Our camps get into the true meaning of the holidays. Campers ages 4—14 learn fun wilderness， take part in role-playing games， and make waffles （华夫饼）. We are located near Ashby BART for drop-off and pick-up， while your children spend their days outside in nature. Call 562-848-9923.

GrowFit Sports Camp， Redwood City & San Jose

To keep your kids active and energized during Dec 19—24 and Dec 28—30， 2021， GrowFit Camp provides a safe place for children to learn and play. Our camp includes many sports and group games and teaches the values of teamwork and sportsmanship. Space is limited. Call 650-394-6176.

21. Which camp may a painting lover attend？

A. Art Camps at Art School of San Francisco Bay. B. The Culinary Dude Winter Break Camps.

C. GrowFit Sports Camp. D. Trackers Earth.

22. How is Trackers Earth different from the other three camps？

A. It teaches kids how to cook. B. It improves kids’ artistic skills.

C. It opens to a certain age group. D. It includes many sports activities.

23. When is GrowFit Sports Camp open to kids？

A. Jan 2， 2022. B. Jan 5， 2022. C. Dec 26， 2021. D. Dec 28， 2021.

B

A British friend told me he couldn’t understand why Chinese people love eating sunflower seeds （葵花子） as a snack so much. “I’ve met a lot of older Chinese and many have a crack in their front teeth; I believe that’s from cracking （破開） the seeds，” he said.

I had never noticed the habit， but once he mentioned it， I suddenly became more aware. I realized that whenever I’m watching TV or typing a report， I always start mindlessly cracking sunflower seeds. My friend doesn’t like sunflower seeds， and， to him， it seems unnecessary to work so hard just to get one small seed.

When we were young， the whole family would usually get together for Chinese New Year. Then， we all lived close to one another， usually in a small city， and sometimes even neighbors would go door-to-door on Chinese New Year’s Eve to check out what every household was making.

I remember my parents would be in the kitchen cooking. In the living room， a large table would already be laid out， complete with a fancy tablecloth， ready-made dumpling fillings， and dishes full of candy， fruits and sunflower seeds.

Some of the dishes were to be offered to our ancestors later， while others were for neighbors and children to eat before the evening feast. I must have learned how to crack sunflower seeds back then.

I don’t think it’s right to criticize one’s choice in food or eating habits， no matter how strange they may seem. It’s not only in China. When I went abroad， I found people had all kinds of strange habits when it came to food. In Denmark， they put salted red fish on bread and eat it for dinner， no matter how much it ruins their breath. They think it’s a delicacy （佳肴）， and it’s connected with their culture. I think it’s a wonderful tradition.

24. What did the author become aware of？

A. She likes to eat sunflower seeds. B. She had ever typed a report about seeds.

C. She ate various snacks while watching TV. D. She damaged her teeth by eating sunflower seeds.

25. The author talks about Chinese New Year to say ___ .

A. eating sunflower seeds is related to it B. family would get together for it

C. the traditions of celebrating it are disappearing D. children can eat delicious food during it

26. What does the author think of Denmark’s way of eating bread？

A. Wonderful. B. Surprising. C. Special. D. Acceptable.

27. What can we learn from the text？

A. It is good to form healthy eating habits. B. Eating habits come from a certain culture.

C. Changing your eating habits will change your life. D. One kind of food doesn’t necessarily suit everyone.

C

Trekking （跋涉） 500 miles across Spain is no easy task for anyone， but for wheelchair user Justin Skeesuck， achieving the dream seemed nearly impossible. However， Skeesuck’s lifelong best friend， Patrick Gray， simply didn’t accept that idea. He said， “We’ve done everything together so far. Why don’t we have one more adventure？”

That’s exactly what he did—pushing Skeesuck across northern Spain’s Camino de Santiago. Though Skeesuck has a muscle disease similar to ALS （肌萎縮侧索硬化） and high blood pressure， he first got the idea to go on the journey after he watched a travel show about the trail. He said， “I knew immediately since my heart was just telling me， ‘You need to do this.’ ’’

Finally， the two best friends from Idaho set off to make Skeesuck’s dream of going for the journey a reality. However， neither Gray nor Skeesuck realized how physically and emotionally arduous the trip would be. Not only did they have a strict time limit—about six weeks to get from start to finish， but they also faced extremely difficult obstacles （障碍）. The pair crossed mountains， rivers and a desert. “I’ve never been that exhausted physically in my entire life，” Gray said. The pair came across countless kind people during their trip who were eager to help them finish their journey， but they refused their help with gentle words. 34 days later， the two best friends finished their journey.

Gray recorded their incredible trip in a book—appropriately titled I’ll Push You： A Journey of 500 Miles， Two Best Friends and One Wheelchair， which would be published soon. Skeesuck and Gray are also working on a children’s book that will tell the story of their adventure. They hope that the book will give kids strength when they deal with difficulties.

28. What can we learn about Patrick Gray from Paragraph 1？

A. He is a wheelchair user.

B. He had been to Spain several times before.

C. He didn’t think trekking 500 miles was an adventure.

D. He wanted to challenge what was thought impossible.

29. What does the underlined word “arduous” in Paragraph 3 probably mean？

A. Disappointing. B. Challenging. C. Satisfying. D. Relaxing.

30. What can we infer about the pair’s journey from Paragraph 3？

A. They set off on foot. B. They finished it ahead of time.

C. They accepted a lot of help from kind people. D. They met with much difficulty as they’d expected.

31. Why did the two friends write a children’s book on that journey？

A. To persuade kids to take a trip to Spain. B. To earn some money by selling the book.

C. To encourage kids to face difficulties bravely. D. To show kids the beautiful natural scenery of Spain.

D

As the most common and popular forms of energy are being used up quickly， the search to find new sources of energy is underway. These sources of energy must be renewable and not cause the pollution that fossil fuels do. Among them are solar energy， geothermal  energy， wind energy and tidal energy.

We can get endless solar energy from the sun. The main problem is to collect and store this energy in an economical way. We can receive energy from the sun with plates or cells. Collectors put on roofs of houses and other buildings turn solar energy into heat. With this energy we can heat up water or the air inside. Solar cells transform the sun’s light directly into electricity.

Geothermal power can be produced in places where water comes into contact with hot rock below the earth’s surface. The water that reaches these hot areas turns into steam， which then produces electricity. Geothermal heat is an important source of energy in countries or regions that lie in volcanic areas， like Iceland， Italy， New Zealand or California.

Windmills have been used for centuries to grind grain into flour between two large stones or pump （用泵輸送） water out of areas that have been flooded. Today， large wind generators turn the power of wind into electricity. Such devices， however， can only be used in places with strong and constant （恒定的） winds. At the moment， though， costs are too high to produce wind energy on a big scale.

Tidal energy comes from the movement of ocean waves. One way to use the power of waves is to seal off a bay with a dam. When water moves into and out of the bay it turns a turbine （涡轮）， which produces electricity. There are some coastal areas around the world where the difference between high and low tide is up to 10 meters or more. Great Britain， Germany and France have coastal regions where such power can be created.

32. The main problem about solar energy is how to ___ .

A. find the right place to fix plates or cells B. collect and store it economically

C. use cells to store electricity D. cut down the costs for it

33. Geothermal energy comes from ___ .

A. heat below the earth’s surface B. tides from the sea

C. the wind D. the sun

34. How can windmills be used？

a. To grind grain into flour.

b. To move a turbine by boiling water.

c. To pump water out of flooded areas.

d. To turn the power of wind into electricity.

A. a， b， c B. a， b， d C. a， c， d D. b， c， d

35. What does the text mainly tell us？

A. Tidal energy was used in our daily life centuries ago.

B. We can collect and store energy from the sun for free.

C. Some kinds of energy mentioned in the text will cause air pollution.

D. Environmentally-friendly and renewable sources of energy are badly in need.

第二節（共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Today anyone will accept money in exchange for goods and services. People use money to buy food， furniture， books， bicycles and hundreds of other things they need or want.        36

Most of the money today is made of metal or paper.        37        One of the first kinds of money was shells.

Shells were not the only things used as money. In China， cloth and knives were used. In the Philippine Islands， rice was used as money for a long time. Elephant tusks （象牙）， monkey tails and salt were used as money in parts of Africa.

The first metal coins were made in China. They were round and had a square hole in the center.        38

Different countries have used different metals and designs for their money.        39        Sweden and Russia used copper to make their money. Later some countries began to make coins of gold and silver.

But even gold and silver were inconvenient if you had to buy something expensive. Again the Chinese thought of a way to improve money.        40        The first paper money looked more like a note from one person to another than the paper money used today.

Money has had an interesting history from the days of shell money until today.

A. They began to use paper money.

B. The first coins in England were made of tin.

C. Money， as we know， is usually made of paper.

D. When they work， they usually get paid in money.

E. But people used to use all kinds of things as money.

F. No one knows for certain when people began to use money.

G. People strung them together and carried them from place to place.

36.  ___ 37.  ___ 38. ___39.  ___40.   ___

第三部分  英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节  完形填空（共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

I was late， as usual. A friend of mine had invited me to a conference， and I had been in the parking lot for a good fifteen minutes. My mind was . Was my husband able to find the  I laid out for the kids？ Did the kids eat breakfast？ More importantly， would he have enough  to look for a parking spot in this jungle of cars in order to meet me here with the  later on？

As I was  through the plan in my mind， I saw a parking space. Since there was not much ， I decided to back up my giant truck between the two white lines so that leaving would be  after the conference ended.

As I adjusted the  of my truck and started reversing （倒車）， another car came out of nowhere and  to take my parking spot. I signaled to the  that I was about to back up into the space， but she squeezed （挤过） by me and  her SUV in my spot！ I couldn’t believe how rude she was！ It made me so  that I got out of my car and stared at the lady. By the way she was dressed， I could  she was on her way to the conference.

I  at her， “That was not very kind behavior！”

Much to my ， she completely took no notice of me， and I stormed off.

After a few minutes， I found another parking  ... behind a smelly dustbin and about a mile away from the conference. Once I  myself down and tried to view the matter from a（n）  angle， the possibility entered my mind that the woman may have needed the spot  I did.

Later， I noticed she was actually one of the vendors （销售商） at the conference. She must have been desperate （极度渴望的） to get there  in order to set up her small tent and display her goods.

41. A. suffering B. struggling C. racing D. beating

42. A. passports B. clothes C. jewels D. cars

43. A. mind B. principle C. humor D. patience

44. A. directors B. kids C. managers D. headmasters

45. A. going B. pulling C. breaking D. getting

46. A. wonder B. energy C. room D. material

47. A. easier B. happier C. slower D. lower

48. A. back B. height C. weight D. direction

49. A. attempted B. managed C. afforded D. pretended

50. A. assistant B. driver C. passenger D. actor

51. A. raised B. lifted C. parked D. pushed

52. A. sad B. touched C. nervous D. angry

53. A. feel B. tell C. hear D. speak

54. A. aimed B. fired C. laughed D. shouted

55. A. relief B. joy C. surprise D. interest

56. A. space B. garden C. road D. street

57. A. turned B. calmed C. broke D. brought

58. A. necessary B. proper C. attractive D. different

59. A. other than B. rather than C. more than D. less than

60. A. quickly B. correctly C. repeatedly D. seriously

第二節（共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Dogs were first raised at home at least 150 centuries ago. Since then， the dog    61    （be） humans’ best friend. Now， they have another job—to assist doctors to diagnose cancer.

After a long-standing research of smell， a Finnish professor has said that certain    62    （type） of cancer are able to be detected by their smell， making it possible to train cancer-sniffing （癌症嗅探能力） dogs    63    （help） diagnose the disease.

A professor， Jouko Vepsalainen from the University of Eastern Finland in Kuopio， has focused    64    nitrogen compounds （氮化合物）. The compounds increase    65    （great） when cancer cells grow in an uncontrollable way，    66    （allow） them to be detected， the Finnish newspaper Karjalainen reported. That’s where the dog， man’s best friend， may step in with their keen （灵敏的） sense of smell.

According to the news agency， researchers in Finland have tried to train dogs to do the job， but    67    will take a dog months， even years， to tell the    68    （different） between sick and healthy people. “Anyone    69    knows how difficult early cancer detection is    70

（understand） what an opportunity this is，” associate professor Anna Hielm-Bjorkman of the University of Helsinki told the Finnish media.

61. ___ 62.    ___   63.    ___    64.   ___   65.    ___

66.      ___ 67.   ___   68.    ___  69.    ___70.     ___

第四部分  寫作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节  短文改错（共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

Now many students are on the sports field， take part in all kinds of sports. The ball game is going on between Class 1 and Class 2. Do you see the students over there？ Some young boys is practicing the high jump. One of them is the better high jumper in our school. He practices very hardly every day. He wanted to break the school record at the sport meeting next spring. In this corner of the field， you can see other group of students. Their teacher is telling them how do better. Our students love sports. They want to keep fit so as to serve for their country.

第二节  书面表达（满分25分）

假如你是李华，为开阔视野、体验美国文化，你将参加“美国文化之旅”活动。请给你的美国笔友Mike写一封电子邮件告知此事，同时，因你第一次去美国，请他就社交礼仪等方面给你一些建议。内容包括：

1.告知你的安排;

2.阐述你的担忧;

3.写邮件的目的。

注意：

1.词数100左右;

2.邮件的开头语和结束语已为你写好，不计入总词数。

参考词汇：美国文化之旅 the Culture Trip to America

Dear Mike，

How is it going recently？

_______________________________________________________________

Yours truly，

Li Hua

1074501705333