Units 1—2 Review1

2024-11-06 00:00:00
时代英语·高一 2024年7期
关键词:空白处秒钟小题

满分150分;时间120分钟。

第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)

第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the man want to have?

A. Cola. B. Juice. C. Ice cream.

2. When did the woman take her father out on Father’s Day?

A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.

3. What is the man dissatisfied with?

A. The food. B. The service. C. The music.

4. Where will the speakers go for dinner?

A. The seafood restaurant. B. The hotel restaurant. C. The Italian restaurant.

5. What can we learn about the woman’s going to the festival?

A. She missed it. B. She was in time. C. She arrived too early.

第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. How often does the man eat out with his friends?

A. Once a week. B. Twice a month. C. Once a month.

7. What does the woman often do at home?

A. Do the dishes. B. Set the table. C. Cook.

听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

8. With whom will the man go to the restaurant?

A. His wife. B. His friend. C. His daughter.

9. When will the man arrive at the restaurant?

A. At about 6 pm. B. At about 7 pm. C. At about 8 pm.

10. Where are the two speakers talking?

A. At home. B. On the phone. C. In the library.

听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。

11. What is Mr Stone doing now?

A. Eating lunch. B. Having a meeting. C. Writing a diary.

12. Why does the man want to see Mr Stone?

A. To discuss a program. B. To make a travel plan. C. To ask for sick leave.

13. When will the man meet Mr Stone?

A. At 3:00. B. At 3:30. C. At 3:45.

听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。

14. What does one of the woman’s friends think of Times Square?

A. Big. B. Crowded. C. Beautiful.

15. What does the woman think is the best celebration?

A. Being with the family. B. Staying with friends. C. Going out to play.

16. Who is the woman to call?

A. Her relatives. B. Her parents. C. Her friends.

17. What are the speakers talking about for New Year’s?

A. Where to go. B. What to buy. C. Who to invite.

听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。

18. Who is Jack?

A. The organizer of the activities. B. One of the tourists. C. A local citizen.

19. Where will the listeners go on Thursday afternoon?

A. To the modern area of the city. B. To Washington University. C. To the sports center.

20. On what day will they go to New York?

A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.

第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Jacob’s Pillow Dance Festival

Where: Becket, Massachusetts

When: June 15—August 24

Each summer, this influential dance center presents a number of classes and performances by more than 50 companies from around the world. Highlights (亮点) this season include the Dance Theater of Harlem’s production of Alvin Ailey’s “The Lark Ascending”, which opens the festival.

Moab Music Festival

Where: Moab, Utah

When: August 29—September 9

This area is better known for mountain biking than for music. But since 1992, it has hosted a private festival that brings classical, jazz, Latin and other types of music to the land. This year there will be 16 concerts, including three “Grotto Concerts”, where guests take a 45-minute boat ride down the Colorado River to performances.

Cheyenne Frontier Days

Where: Cheyenne, Wyoming

When: July 19—28

There’s something for everyone at this 117-year-old festival, from an “Indian village” and Old West museum to country concerts. But the competition is still the main attraction, with cowboys and cowgirls competing for major money in the world’s largest outdoor stage.

The Glimmerglass Festival

Where: Cooperstown, New York

When: July 6—August 24

Each summer, opera lovers from around the country (and the world) travel to upstate New York to watch productions that include stars like Nathan Gunn and Ginger Costa-Jackson. This year’s performances include Wagner’s “The Flying Dutchman” and Verdi’s “King for a Day”.

21. On which day can you go to a dance performance?

A. June 6. B. June 28. C. August 29. D. September 9.

22. Where can you watch a competition and enjoy concerts?

A. Becket, Massachusetts. B. Moab, Utah.

C. Cheyenne, Wyoming. D. Cooperstown, New York.

23. Which festival can you go to if you are an opera lover?

A. Jacob’s Pillow Dance Festival. B. The Glimmerglass Festival.

C. Cheyenne Frontier Days. D. Moab Music Festival.

B

At the Smithsonian Folklife Festival, among mountain songs and ethnic costumes and special ceremonies, I am noticeable despite my modern dress, as my green “VOLUNTEER” nametag brands me as a perfect target for curious tourists. I have volunteered to learn about global customs; my knowledge of my native culture is limited. I had boxed up my past before moving to America eight years ago, when a new continent considered my old self foreign.

Here on the National Mall, I am the only means of communication between the Americans and the artisan (工匠), who were invited from China to display their talents. They see my awkward hand gestures (手势) as I test my mother tongue, speaking Mandarin (普通话) and putting it into English for visitors.

The artisans have exceptional skills. He Guoyao can read thousands of pictographic characters (象形文字) and bears the duty of passing on Dongba culture. Cheng Zhirong creates fantastic animal figures with a spoon and melted sugar in minutes. Standing among them, I wonder about the contributions a 16-year-old girl can make.

“Oh, it’s so pretty!” A young girl sticks her nose close to a sugar dragon. Zhirong, the candy maker, signals to me, and I explain to the girl that the dragon is pure sugar. “Mommy, it’s candy!” she excitedly says. “Beautiful...” The crowd breathes in awe. One woman taps me on the shoulder, saying, “Please, tell her that her work is unbelievable... a gift from another world.”

As Zhirong takes my hand and calls me “little sister”, I find my place in this group of extraordinary people who crossed oceans to build a bridge between different ethnicities and nationalities through sugar sculptures and painted words. I, too, am a bearer of traditions.

I smile at Guoyao, as he paints in pictographic characters the English words I have taught him, “You’re welcome.” I come to know that culture is not shelved behind glass cases in museums. It is in the life that I once thought backward and uninteresting—the Chinese way of life that is a part of me.

24. Why does the author attend the Smithsonian Folklife Festival?

A. To learn about global traditions. B. To improve her interpersonal skills.

C. To interview some talented artisans. D. To enjoy the wonderful artworks.

25. What is the author’s role on the National Mall?

A. A visitor. B. A translator. C. A tour guide. D. A security guard.

26. What does the underlined part “in awe” in Paragraph 4 mean?

A. In doubt. B. In silence. C. In satisfaction. D. In amazement.

27. What does the author think of Chinese culture?

A. It is part of her life. B. It is presented in different ways.

C. It can be kept alive through exchanges. D. It has helped her better adapt to the new life.

C

Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to questioning guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role—showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget (紧张的预算).

In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under £5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she’s been able to put a lot of what she’s learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, 14, Finn, 13, and Jack, 11.

“We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant,” she explains. “I pay £5 for a portion (一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food, but sometimes we’re not aware how cheaply we can make this food ourselves.”

The eight-part series, Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV’s Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the vast range of health products on the market.

With food our biggest weekly household expense, Susanna and Matt spend time with a different family each week. In tonight’s Easter special they come to the aid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes.

28. What do we know about Susanna Reid?

A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. B. She has started a new program.

C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She has had a tight budget for her family.

29. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?

A. He buys cooking materials for her. B. He prepares food for her kids.

C. He helps her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her.

30. What does the author intend to do in Paragraph 4?

A. Summarize the paragraphs ahead of it. B. Provide some advice for the readers.

C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion.

31. What can be the best title for the text?

A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet

C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well with Less Money

D

Mushrooms (蘑菇) usually grow on dark, damp forest floors or fallen tree branches. Now a company in Abu Dhabi has found a way to grow them in the middle of the desert.

Below Farm is producing special mushrooms. Co-founder Bronte Weir says the indoor farm, about 45 minutes’ drive from downtown Abu Dhabi, is the first in the region to grow and sell high-end mushrooms. Below Farm’s offerings are better than imported mushrooms, she says, because mushrooms lose their freshness quickly.

Weir co-founded the company in 2021, in cooperation with Liliana Slowinska and Wojciech Slowinski. They mainly sell the mushrooms to restaurants and stores. Also, they sell mushrooms directly to customers.

Weir says that existing indoor mushroom-growing technology, developed mainly in Europe and the United States, isn’t designed for Abu Dhabi’s high daytime temperatures, which can top 40℃ in summer.

Wojciech Slowinski took the lead in developing a solution. The farm consists of four special chambers (室) covered in a foot-deep layer of insulation (隔热材料层) to help keep the space cool. “We can create the right conditions for each type of mushroom,” says Weir. Maintaining higher air pressure inside the rooms helps to protect the crops from Abu Dhabi’s winds and dust.

Raj Dagstani, who runs a restaurant, is a fan of Below Farm. “The best-tasting pizza on the menu is the mushroom,” says Dagstani, adding that he created the dish after he tried out Below Farm’s mushrooms. He now orders 20 kilograms of mushrooms a week from the company. According to market intelligence experts, the global mushroom market grew by over 9% last year and continues to expand, partly due to the popularity of plant-based diets.

32. Where does Below Farm probably lie?

A. In a place away from the city. B. In the center of the city.

C. In the forest. D. In the grassland.

33. What does Bronte Weir do?

A. A partner in Below Farm. B. A farmer in Abu Dhabi.

C. A manager of a restaurant. D. A scientist in farming.

34. What can we learn about the new indoor mushroom-growing technology?

A. It provides fresh air inside the rooms. B. It helps keep the heat out of the chambers.

C. It increases the mushroom varieties. D. It offers a new way to keep mushrooms fresh.

35. What can be inferred from Raj Dagstani’s words?

A. Plant-based diets become more popular. B. His restaurant sells the best-tasting pizza.

C. The global mushroom market is promising. D. Below Farm’s mushrooms are of high quality.

第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

It’s easy to stick to eating the same foods every day, especially if you love them. 36

Eating the same foods can lead to nutritional (营养的) shortage. Our bodies need a wide range of nutrients, and eating a wide variety of foods can help us meet our body’s needs. 37 Almost everyone would agree that “eat the rainbow” is a good rule of thumb. Don’t forget frozen vegetables are just as healthy as fresh ones and they don’t spoil quickly.

Your immune (免疫) system will get hurt if you keep eating the same foods. According to a study published in British Journal of Nutrition, the enhanced nutrition from a varied diet seems to boost (促进) immunity. 38 People whose diets have little variation are more likely to get sick due to a weakened immune system.

Sticking to eating the same foods leads to food boredom. 39 It should be something you look forward to. Changing up what you eat exposes you to great new foods and new recipes, and helps bring back the fun in eating.

40 We see a lot of people focus on a single nutrient or food because it attracts media fame. And while all foods are to be celebrated for their unique nutritional quality, assigning yourself to a limited list of foods because they are the most well-known or well described will close you off from various other important nutrients.

A. Food should be fun!

B. This helps people resist diseases.

C. But it may not be the best thing for your health.

D. You should eat a plant-based diet and eat less meat.

E. Eating the same foods limits your nutritional sources.

F. Though tasty, they can’t provide the nutrition you need.

G. Eat the colors of the rainbow when it comes to fruit and vegetables.

36." " " __________" " " " " " " " " " "37." " " " " " " "__________ " " " " " " 38." " " " " "__________ " " " " " " " " 39." " " " " " __________" " " " " " " " 40." "__________

第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Under the Christmas tree, I saw a set of blue tea cups. It had been on my 41 for Santa. The red gift note 42 : “To Susan from Santa.” It wasn’t china, simply a plastic toy, but I loved it as if it were the 43 thing.

That Christmas morning I thought I would surprise Dad by 44 him a cup of coffee with my new gift. With tea cups in hand, I rushed off to the 45 .

As a 5-year-old kid, I wasn’t allowed to 46 anything hot on the stove (炉子). I broke the rule and got the coffee pot. I carefully 47 the coffee, then added a bit of milk and sugar. I also poured myself a drop of coffee with a lot of milk, so we could have a “tea party”.

Carefully carrying the tray (托盘) with our tea cups to the living room, I found Dad 48 in his favorite chair reading a newspaper. I 49 served him his coffee. “Daddy, your coffee is OK,” I announced.

Dad looked up at his little girl. “How 50 , young lady,” he thanked me and 51 his tea cup.

I noticed the tea cup seemed too 52 for him, though it was just the right size for me. I drank my milk with coffee as Dad sipped (抿) his coffee. I could 53 the plastic tea cup had a 54 plastic taste as I sipped.

But Dad didn’t seem to 55 —he just continued drinking his coffee, down to the last 56 . He smiled as he placed the 57 cup on the tray saying, “That’s good.” I 58 he was just being nice, drinking the bitter-tasting coffee because he didn’t want to hurt my heart.

That morning I learned a 59 from Dad: Sometimes we need to be nice and act in good 60 even if life, in the moment, doesn’t really taste good.

41. A. way B. list C. part D. plan

42. A. read B. wrote C. printed D. drew

43. A. cool B. regular C. super D. real

44. A. making B. buying C. serving D. exchanging

45. A. shop B. street C. school D. kitchen

46. A. touch B. find C. sell D. eat

47. A. boiled B. poured C. drank D. ordered

48. A. working B. sleeping C. singing D. relaxing

49. A. shyly B. proudly C. patiently D. suddenly

50. A. interesting B. beautiful C. nice D. clever

51. A. held out B. dropped off C. turned down D. reached for

52. A. hot B. small C. cold D. light

53. A. smell B. see C. tell D. hear

54. A. bitter B. sour C. salty D. sweet

55. A. start B. mind C. agree D. understand

56. A. drop B. chance C. hope D. time

57. A. used B. dirty C. empty D. fancy

58. A. worried B. doubted C. hoped D. realized

59. A. trick B. skill C. lesson D. language

60. A. taste B. fame C. point D. sight

第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Spring Festival, which 61 (fall) on the first day of the first lunar month, is one of the most important traditional Chinese festivals. Before this festival, people always clean and decorate their houses

62 (care).

Blood is thicker than water. No matter 63 far they study or work, all family members will try their best to go home to get together, in order to experience the 64 (warm) of a family and show respect for parents and grandparents. They will also take advantage 65 this chance to call on relatives and close friends.

On Chinese New Year’s Eve, the whole family tend 66 (eat) jiaozi together, then watch 67 Spring Festival Gala (春晚). Children may feel happiest during this holiday, because they feel like 68 (wear) new clothes and getting lucky money wrapped in red paper from their parents or relatives. Their eagerness is beyond 69 (describe). In order to celebrate this festival, there are many activities, for example, the lion dance.

All in all, every Chinese wants to enjoy this 70 (excite) and meaningful festival in his or her own hometown.

61." " " " " __________" " " " " " " " " 62." " " " "__________" " " " " " " " " 63." " " " " __________" " " " " " " " " 64." " "__________ " " " " " " " " " " " 65." " " " " " "__________

66." " " " " " "__________ " " " " " " " 67." " " " " " " " "__________ " " " " " 68." " " " " " " "__________ " " " " " " 69." " " "__________ " " " " " " " " " " 70." __________

第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(﹨)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Dear Jenny,

How nice to hear of you! In your letter you asked me how keep healthy. I would like to give you some advices.

As we know, food is quite importance to us teenagers. Since we grow very fast, we are in the need of fresh vegetables, fruit, fish and meat. I thought you’d better not eating food with much sugar and fat. And you should get plenty of sleep, but it is necessary for you to have at least eight hours of sleep every day. Besides, you should take physical exercise regular. It will be good for my health. Only in this way can you keep fit.

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节 书面表达(满分25分)

假定你是李华,为了弘扬中华饮食文化、丰富学生生活,上周日你校举办了校园美食节。请你为校英文报写一篇报道,内容包括:

1.活动时间和地点;

2.活动内容;

3.你的感想。

注意:

1.词数100左右;

2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

A Food Festival

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